We have a pretty good policy here at Mi Yodeya where people are free to use their preferred method of transliteration as long as it's consistent with a particular nusach.
But the transliterated phrases Sfardi and Sfardim have become a point of contention in certain circles. Not only are there issues of people not understanding the difference between Sefard and Sefardi, but a lot of Sefaradim don't appreciate being called Sefardim.
The first point of contention is that Sefardi is just bad Hebrew, the Hebrew word is S'faradi/S'faradim with an extra a vowel after the r.
The second point of contention is that Sefaradim are more and more not appreciating being named by the Ashkenazi community with a bastardized Hebrew when Ashkenazim don't seem to have an issue pronouncing all the vowels for the word Ashkenazi. (Source: personal observation after being checked and corrected by a few proud Sepharadim, especially in Israel.) I myself was not very particular about this in the past but have been corrected repeatedly in recent times and have met people who want to start calling Ashkenazim "Ashkem" or "Ashkenzim" in response.
So I'm raising the question that if a typically accepted form of transliteration is becoming a point of contention, or possibly even insulting to a major Jewish group, whether such a transliteration should be corrected/standardized. Add onto it when the transliteration in question is grammatically incorrect by all actual traditions (unless you can show me a tradition that states it's proper to drop vowels)