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When asking about a law in the Torah which is not in active use do to our current pre-temple status, may one ask it as if it is happening.

Example

Q. My Bechor got mixed in with my Pesach, and I don’t know which is which, what should I do??

A. It depends. Are you a Cohen. Etc.

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  • Is the question about can it be phrased in this manner and be acceptable, or is this considered psak seeking if it’s phrased this way? Because to me those are two completely different questions. – DonielF Mar 2 at 19:14
  • Can I ask a practical question about Pesach since it won’t be relevant for another month? – Alex Mar 3 at 0:12
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If you're familiar enough with Mi Yodeya to have read this Meta post, then I would encourage you to uphold our "no-pesak-seeking" policy by not posting such questions in a way that look formally like they're seeking pesak.

If you see a post that looks formally like it's seeking pesak to regulate the author's personal choices but clearly is not, for obvious circumstantial reasons, I'd recommend one of two actions:

  1. Edit it to make it clear that it's not seeking pesak. In your example, this could be done by prepending the sentence "Suppose I live in a time when we have a functioning Mizbeyach (speedily should that day come, in our time)."

  2. Leave it alone. It's not an instance of someone using Mi Yodeya as their rabbi, and it's not going to be read as such by most people who care about the topic at hand. There's more harm than good available from either voting to close or posting a critical comment.

May the Mizbeyach, the Bet Hamikdash, and the service therein be restored speedily, in our time. When that happens, many questions and answers will need to be revised, more substantially than this issue requires. I look forward to the emergency Mi Yodeya discussions in which we work out what needs to be done, and how.

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