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I came across this question just now. It seems to be in good faith, but the embedded links are references to non-Jewish sources.

Is it appropriate to replace these with corresponding links from Sefaria and the like?

There is this question -- Is it forbidden to ask questions which originate from non-Jewish sources?; but in this case I think the question could be asked from the Jewish sources as well.

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Yes, it is wholly appropriate to edit questions so that they refer to Jewish translations, unless the non-Jewish translation is essential to the question.

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    More specifically, it is always and only appropriate to edit to improve a post. To the extent that a Jewish translation is better (that is, more accurate/trustworthy) than a non-Jewish one, editing to switch to it would be an improvement. If the change would for whatever reason not improve the post, it would be inappropriate. – Double AA Apr 27 at 13:12

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