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I came across this question just now. It seems to be in good faith, but the embedded links are references to non-Jewish sources.

Is it appropriate to replace these with corresponding links from Sefaria and the like?

There is this question -- Is it forbidden to ask questions which originate from non-Jewish sources?; but in this case I think the question could be asked from the Jewish sources as well.

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Yes, it is wholly appropriate to edit questions so that they refer to Jewish translations, unless the non-Jewish translation is essential to the question.

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    More specifically, it is always and only appropriate to edit to improve a post. To the extent that a Jewish translation is better (that is, more accurate/trustworthy) than a non-Jewish one, editing to switch to it would be an improvement. If the change would for whatever reason not improve the post, it would be inappropriate.
    – Double AA Mod
    Apr 27 at 13:12
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It is wholly appropriate to edit sources questions so that they refer to Jewish translations when doing so improves the post by either adding more relevance or accuracy. But this is not always necessary, and some Christian translations can be equally as accurate as our own.

Some Christian translations care so much about accuracy they have defaulted to translating more in line with Jewish sources and against Christian sources to the point their translations become banned in Churches. For example the New Revised Standard Bible does not translate Isaiah 7:12 as being some virgin birth prophecy for Jesus, rather they translate the verse accurately. Because of this their Bible is banned in many Christian churches: https://postbarthian.com/2017/12/24/virgin-young-woman-isaiah-714-litmus-test-bible-translations/

therefore I would feel comfortable posting sources from this translation.

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